Latest Success Metrics For Actual CAS-004 Exam (Updated 445 Questions)
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CompTIA CAS-004, also known as the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) certification exam, is one of the most prestigious and globally recognized certifications in the field of information security. CAS-004 exam is designed for advanced-level IT security professionals who have at least ten years of experience in IT administration, with five years of hands-on technical security experience.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A cybersecurity analyst created the following tables to help determine the maximum budget amount the business can justify spending on an improved email filtering system:
Which of the following meets the budget needs of the business?
- A. Filter XYZ
- B. Filter ABC
- C. Filter TUV
- D. Filter GHI
Answer: A
Explanation:
Filter XYZ is the best option that meets the budget needs of the business. Filter XYZ has an ALE of $1 million per year, which is lower than any other filter option. ALE stands for annualized loss expectancy, which is a measure of how much money a business can expect to lose due to a risk over a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of an event by the single loss expectancy (SLE) of an event. ARO is how often an event is expected to occur in a year. SLE is how much money an event will cost each time it occurs. Therefore, ALE = ARO x SLE. Filter XYZ has an ARO of 0.1 and an SLE of $10 million, so ALE = 0.1 x $10 million = $1 million. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide
,https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/annualized-loss-expectancy-ale
NEW QUESTION # 55
A security analyst is researching containerization concepts for an organization. The analyst is concerned about potential resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources.
Which of the following core Linux concepts BEST reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers?
- A. Union filesystem overlay
- B. Device mapper
- C. Linux namespaces
- D. Cgroups
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 56
A security analyst for a managed service provider wants to implement the most up-to-date and effective security methodologies to provide clients with the best offerings. Which of the following resources would the analyst MOST likely adopt?
- A. OWASP
- B. OSINT
- C. ISO
- D. MITRE ATT&CK
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 57
A security administrator configured the account policies per security implementation guidelines.
However, the accounts still appear to be susceptible to brute-force attacks. The following settings meet the existing compliance guidelines:
Must have a minimum of 15 characters
Must use one number
Must use one capital letter
Must not be one of the last 12 passwords used
Which of the following policies should be added to provide additional security?
- A. Password history
- B. Account lockout
- C. Password complexity
- D. Shared accounts
- E. Time-based logins
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 58
Clients are reporting slowness when attempting to access a series of load-balanced APIs that do not require authentication. The servers that host the APIs are showing heavy CPU utilization. No alerts are found on the WAFs sitting in front of the APIs.
Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST remedy the performance issues in a timely manner?
- A. Implement input validation on the API.
- B. Implement OAuth 2.0 on the API.
- C. Implement geoblocking on the WAF.
- D. Implement rate limiting on the API.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION # 59
An investigator is attempting to determine if recent data breaches may be due to issues with a company's web server that offers news subscription services. The investigator has gathered the following data:
* Clients successfully establish TLS connections to web services provided by the server.
* After establishing the connections, most client connections are renegotiated
* The renegotiated sessions use cipher suite SHR.
Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?
- A. A ransomware payload dropper has been installed
- B. The clients disallow the use of modern cipher suites
- C. An entity is performing downgrade attacks on path
- D. The web server is misconfigured to support HTTP/1.1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack
https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks
https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/
NEW QUESTION # 60
Application owners are reporting performance issues with traffic using port 1433 from the cloud environment. A security administrator has various pcap files to analyze the data between the related source and destination servers. Which of the following tools should be used to help troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Exploit framework
- B. Password cracker
- C. Wireless vulnerability scan
- D. Fuzz testing
- E. Protocol analyzer
Answer: E
Explanation:
A protocol analyzer, such as Wireshark, is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It allows security administrators to inspect individual packets, understand the traffic flow, and identify any unusual patterns or issues that may be impacting performance, such as high latency or unusual volume of traffic on a specific port.
NEW QUESTION # 61
A technician accidentally deleted the secret key that was corresponding to the public key pinned to a busy online magazine. To remedy the situation, the technician obtained a new certificate with a different key.
However, paying subscribers were locked out of the website until the key-pinning policy expired. Which of the following alternatives should the technician adopt to prevent a similar issue in the future?
- A. Certificate revocation list
- B. Client authentication
- C. Registration authority
- D. Certificate authority authorization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Certificate Authority Authorization (CAA) is not listed directly in the provided options, but it is a relevant mechanism in the context of managing certificates and preventing issues similar to the one described.
However, based on the available choices, the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) comes closest to providing a viable solution. OCSP allows for real-time validation of a certificate's revocation status, which could mitigate the issue of users being locked out due to key pinning policies. It is a more modern and efficient alternative to Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), offering faster and more reliable certificate status checks. By implementing OCSP, the technician could ensure that clients receive timely updates on the revocation status of certificates, potentially avoiding the downtime caused by the key-pinning policy awaiting expiration.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A security architect Is analyzing an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business. Which of the following techniques should have been Implemented to prevent these types of risks?
- A. Supply chain visibility
- B. Source code escrows
- C. Code reviews
- D. Software audits
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.
A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:
Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.
Protect the vendor's intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.
Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A security engineer is making certain URLs from an internal application available on the Internet.
The development team requires the following
- The URLs are accessible only from internal IP addresses
- Certain countries are restricted
- TLS is implemented.
- System users transparently access internal application services in a
round robin to maximize performance
Which of the following should the security engineer deploy?
- A. DNS to direct traffic and a WAF with only the specific external URLs configured
- B. An application-aware firewall with geofencing and certificate services using DNS for traffic direction
- C. A load balancer with IP ACL restrictions and a commercially available PKI certificate
- D. A load balancer with GeolP restrictions and least-load-sensing traffic distribution
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following terms refers to the delivery of encryption keys to a CASB or a third-party entity?
- A. Key distribution
- B. Key sharing
- C. Key escrow
- D. Key recovery
Answer: C
Explanation:
Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following technologies allows CSPs to add encryption across multiple data storages?
- A. Bit splitting
- B. Homomorphic encryption
- C. Data dispersion
- D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 66
An administrator at a software development company would like to protect the integrity Of the company's applications with digital signatures. The developers report that the signing process keeps failing on all applications. The same key pair used for signing, however,
is working properly on the website, is valid, and is issued by a trusted CA. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the signature failing?
- A. The certificate is set for the wrong key usage.
- B. Each application is missing a SAN or wildcard entry on the certificate.
- C. The CA has included the certificate in its CRL_
- D. The NTP server is set incorrectly for the developers.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 67
A company's employees are not permitted to access company systems while traveling internationally. The company email system is configured to block logins based on geographic location, but some employees report their mobile phones continue to sync email traveling . Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation? (Choose two.)
- A. Privilege escalation attack
- B. Disabled GPS on mobile devices
- C. Outdated escalation attack
- D. Unrestricted email administrator accounts
- E. Chief use of UDP protocols
- F. VPN on the mobile device
Answer: B,F
NEW QUESTION # 68
An organization based in the United States is planning to expand its operations into the European market later in the year Legal counsel is exploring the additional requirements that must be established as a result of the expansion. The BEST course of action would be to
- A. draft a memorandum of understanding
- B. revise the employee provisioning and deprovisioning procedures
- C. complete a security questionnaire focused on data privacy.
- D. complete a quantitative risk assessment
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 69
Prior to a risk assessment inspection, the Chief Information Officer tasked the systems administrator with analyzing and reporting any configuration issues on the information systems, and then verifying existing security settings. Which of the following would be BEST to use?
- A. CVSS
- B. XCCDF
- C. SCAP
- D. CMDB
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 70
In preparation for the holiday season, a company redesigned the system that manages retail sales and moved it to a cloud service provider. The new infrastructure did not meet the company's availability requirements. During a postmortem analysis, the following issues were highlighted:
1. International users reported latency when images on the web page
were initially loading.
2. During times of report processing, users reported issues with
inventory when attempting to place orders.
3. Despite the fact that ten new API servers were added, the load
across servers was heavy at peak times.
Which of the following infrastructure design changes would be BEST for the organization to implement to avoid these issues in the future?
- A. Serve static content via distributed CDNs, create a read replica of the central database and pull reports from there, and auto-scale API servers based on performance.
- B. Serve static-content object storage across different regions, increase the instance size on the managed relational database, and distribute the ten API servers across multiple regions.
- C. Increase the bandwidth for the server that delivers images, use a CDN, change the database to a non-relational database, and split the ten API servers across two load balancers.
- D. Serve images from an object storage bucket with infrequent read times, replicate the database across different regions, and dynamically create API servers based on load.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 71
A security analyst has been assigned incident response duties and must instigate the response on a Windows device that appears to be compromised.
Which of the following commands should be executed on the client FIRST?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 72
A new security policy states all wireless and wired authentication must include the use of certificates when connecting to internal resources within the enterprise LAN by all employees.
Which of the following should be configured to comply with the new security policy? (Choose two.)
- A. 802.1X
- B. Push-based authentication
- C. SSO
- D. PKI
- E. OAuth
- F. New pre-shared key
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 73
A company just released a new video card. Due to limited supply and nigh demand, attackers are employing automated systems to purchase the device through the company's web store so they can resell it on the secondary market. The company's Intended customers are frustrated. A security engineer suggests implementing a CAPTCHA system on the web store to help reduce the number of video cards purchased through automated systems.
Which of the following now describes the level of risk?
- A. Mitigated
- B. Low
- C. Residual
- D. Inherent
- E. Transferred
Answer: C
Explanation:
CAPTCHA does not completely mitigate the risk of Bots but rather reduces the risk and therefore Residual risk remains after the CAPTCHA implementation.
NEW QUESTION # 74
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CompTIA CAS-004 certification exam is challenging and requires extensive preparation. CAS-004 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions, which must be completed within 165 minutes. CAS-004 exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in a simulated real-world environment. CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam certification is valid for three years and must be renewed by meeting continuing education requirements. The CompTIA CAS-004 certification is a valuable asset for IT professionals who wish to advance their careers in the field of cybersecurity and information security.
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