[Nov 05, 2024] Powerful 350-401 PDF Dumps for 350-401 Questions [Q79-Q103]

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[Nov 05, 2024] Powerful 350-401 PDF Dumps for 350-401 Questions

Authentic 350-401 Dumps - Free PDF Questions to Pass


Cisco 350-401: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) exam is a valuable certification for IT professionals who want to enhance their knowledge and skills in enterprise network technologies. Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) certification is recognized globally and can help candidates advance their careers in the IT industry. To successfully pass 350-401 exam, candidates must have a deep understanding of enterprise network protocols and technologies and hands-on experience with Cisco network devices.


Cisco 350-401 certification exam is intended for network engineers, network administrators, and other IT professionals who are responsible for designing, implementing, and managing enterprise-level network infrastructures. 350-401 exam consists of multiple-choice questions, simulations, and drag-and-drop questions that test the candidate's practical knowledge of network technologies and their ability to troubleshoot network issues. Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) certification exam is challenging and requires a deep understanding of complex network concepts, making it a valuable credential for IT professionals looking to advance their careers in the networking field.

 

NEW QUESTION # 79
Refer to the exhibit. Which result does the python code achieve?

  • A. The code encrypts a base64 decrypted password.
  • B. The code converts time to the Epoch LINUX time format.
  • C. The code converts time to the "year/month/day" time format.
  • D. The code converts time to the yyyymmdd representation.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 80
Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to save the returned configuration as a JSON-formatted file?

A)

B)

C)

D)

  • A. Option B
  • B. Option D
  • C. Option C
  • D. Option A

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 81
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form?

  • A. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255 area 0
  • B. network 20.1.1.2.0.0.255.255 area 0
  • C. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0. area 0
  • D. network 20.1.1.2.0.0.0.0 area 0

Answer: D

Explanation:
The -network 20.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command on R2 did not cover the IP address of Fa1/1 interface of R2 so OSPF did not run on this interface. Therefore we have to use the command -network 20.1.1.2 0.0.255.255 area 0 to turn on OSPF on this interface.
Note: The command -network 20.1.1.2 0.0.255.255 area 0 can be used too so this answer is also correct but answer C is the best answer here.
The -network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 command on R1 will run OSPF on all active


NEW QUESTION # 82
Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

  • A. event manager applet boom
    event syslog pattern 'UP'
    action 1.0 puts 'logging directly to console'
  • B. event manager applet boom
    event syslog pattern 'UP'
    action 1.0 string 'logging directly to console'
  • C. event manager applet boom
    event syslog pattern 'UP'
    action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'log directly to console'
  • D. event manager applet boom
    event syslog pattern 'UP'
    action 1.0 gets 'logging directly to console'

Answer: C

Explanation:
To enable the action of printing data directly to the local tty when an Embedded Event Manager
(EEM) applet is triggered, use the action puts command in applet configuration mode.
The following example shows how to print data directly to the local tty:

The action puts command applies to synchronous events. The output of this command for a
synchronous applet is directly displayed to the tty, bypassing the syslog.
Reference:
a1.html


NEW QUESTION # 83
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tool classifications on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated


NEW QUESTION # 84
Which tag defines the properties to be applied to each specific WLAN?

  • A. site tag
  • B. policy tag
  • C. AP tag
  • D. RF tag

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the context of Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controllers, a policy tag is used to define the properties that will be applied to each specific WLAN. The policy tag maps the WLAN profile to the policy profile, which in turn defines the wireless characteristics of the WLAN and the network policies and switching policies for the client2.
References := Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller Software Configuration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 85
Which network devices secure API platform?

  • A. next-generation intrusion detection systems
  • B. Layer 3 transit network devices
  • C. web application firewalls
  • D. content switches

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 86
An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, WHICH VIRTUAL IP address must be used in this configuration?

  • A. 192.168.0.1
  • B. 172.20.10.1
  • C. 1.1.1.1
  • D. 192.0.2.1

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 87
How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

  • A. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition
  • B. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address
  • C. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint
  • D. uses flexible NetFlow

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/identity-services-engine/ at_a_glance_c45-726831.pdf


NEW QUESTION # 88
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed
  • B. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response
  • C. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI
  • D. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation
When you use the sync yes option in the event cli command, the EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed. The EEM applet should set the _exit_status variable to indicate whether the CLI command should be executed (_exit_status set to one) or not (_exit_status set to zero).
With the sync no option, the EEM applet is executed in background in parallel with the CLI command.
Reference: https://blog.ipspace.net/2011/01/eem-event-cli-command-options-and.html


NEW QUESTION # 89
Refer to the exhibit.

Object tracking has been configured for VRRP-enabled routers Edge-01 and Edge-02 Which commands cause Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 in the event that interface G0/0 goes down on Edge-01?

  • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the context of VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), object tracking is utilized to dynamically adjust the priority of a router when a specified event occurs, such as an interface going down. For Edge-02 to preempt Edge-01 when Edge-01's interface G0/0 goes down, the configuration on Edge-01 must include a decrease in its priority so that Edge-02 with a higher priority can become the master router. The correct commands would involve setting up track objects and associating them with the VRRP group, specifying the decrement value for the priority.


NEW QUESTION # 90
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is enabling logging to a local buffer, to the terminal and to a syslog server for all debugging level logs filtered by facility code 7. Which command is needed to complete this configuration snippet?

  • A. logging discriminator Disc1 severity includes 7 facility includes fac7
  • B. logging buffered discriminator Disc1 debugging
  • C. logging buffered debugging
  • D. logging discriminator Disc1 severity includes 7

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 91
In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

  • A. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric
  • B. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric
  • C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network
  • D. to connect external Layer 3-network to the SD-Access fabric

Answer: A

Explanation:
+ Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.


NEW QUESTION # 92
What is the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

  • A. It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.
  • B. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric.
  • C. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric.
  • D. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Fabric control plane node (C): One or more network elements that implement the LISP Map-Server (MS) and Map-Resolver (MR) functionality. The control plane node's host tracking database keep track of all endpoints in a fabric site and associates the endpoints to fabric nodes in what is known as an EID-to-RLOC binding in LISP.


NEW QUESTION # 93

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to use RESTCONF to configure GigabitEthernet2 on a remote router with IP address 192.168.159.10. but the configuration fails. Which configuration is required to complete the action?

  • A. Option B
  • B. Option D
  • C. Option C
  • D. Option A

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct configuration requires specifying the interface details within the JSON data structure sent in the PATCH request. This includes the interface type, IP address, and any other relevant settings that align with the RESTCONF API and the Cisco IOS XE native data models.


NEW QUESTION # 94
Which deployment option of Cisco NGFW provides scalability?

  • A. tap
  • B. clustering
  • C. inline tap
  • D. high availability

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/fxos/clustering/asa-cluster-solution.html


NEW QUESTION # 95
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?

  • A. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate.
  • B. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.
  • C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
  • D. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate.


NEW QUESTION # 96
Drag and drop the solutions that comprise Cisco Cyber Threat Defense from the left onto the objectives they accomplish on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated with medium confidence


NEW QUESTION # 97
Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of antenna is shown on the radiation patterns?

  • A. Yagi
  • B. omnidirectional
  • C. patch
  • D. dipole

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 98
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment models on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated with medium confidence


NEW QUESTION # 99
Refer to me exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command is required to verify NETCONF capability reply messages?

  • A. show netconf schema | section rpc-reply
  • B. show netconf | section rpc-reply
  • C. show netconf xml rpc-reply
  • D. show netconf rpc-reply

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 100
Which three methods does Cisco DNA Center use to discover devices? (Choose three.)

  • A. CDP
  • B. LLDP
  • C. specified range of IP addresses
  • D. Ping
  • E. NETCONF
  • F. SNMP

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Cisco DNA Center supports three methods for discovery: LLDP, CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) and IP Range.
https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/LTRNMS-2500-LG.pdf


NEW QUESTION # 101
Refer to Exhibit.

MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared?

  • A. The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation.
  • B. The packet is discarded on router B
  • C. The packet is discarded on router A
  • D. The packet arrives on router C fragmented.

Answer: D

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 102
An engineer must configure Interface and sensor monitoring on a router. The NMS server is located in a trusted zone with IP address 10.15.2.19. Communication between the router and the NMS server must be encrypted and password-protected using the most secure algorithms. Access must be allowed only for the NMS server and with the minimum permission levels needed. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

  • A.
  • B.
  • C.
  • D.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Option A is the correct configuration to apply interface and sensor monitoring on a router with the given requirements. This option uses SNMPv3, which is the most secure version of SNMP that supports encryption and authentication. The configuration steps are as follows12:
* Create an access list named nms that permits only the NMS server with IP address 10.15.2.19 to access the router: ip access-list standard nms and permit 10.15.2.19 0.0.0.0.
* Create a view named rw that includes all the SNMP objects: snmp-server view rw included.
* Create a group named nms that uses SNMPv3 with privacy (encryption) and authentication, and assigns the view rw and the access list nms to the group: snmp-server group nms v3 priv read rw access nms.
* Create a user named nms that belongs to the group nms and uses DES for authentication and AES for encryption, with the passwords despass and aespass respectively: snmp-server user nms nms v3 auth des despass priv aes 192 aespass.
Option B is incorrect because it does not use encryption for SNMP communication, which is required by the question. The noauth keyword in the snmp-server group command means that no authentication or encryption is used, which makes the SNMP packets vulnerable to eavesdropping and tampering1.
Option C is incorrect because it does not use the most secure algorithms for SNMP communication, which is required by the question. The md5 and des keywords in the snmp-server user command mean that MD5 and DES are used for authentication and encryption respectively, which are considered weak and outdated algorithms. AES and SHA are recommended instead1.
Option D is incorrect because it does not restrict the access to the NMS server only, which is required by the question. The snmp-server community command creates a community string that acts as a password for SNMP access, but it does not specify an access list to limit the source IP addresses that can use the community string. Therefore, any device that knows the community string can access the router via SNMP1. References: 1: Configuring SNMPv3, 2: SNMP Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Gibraltar
16.12.x


NEW QUESTION # 103
......


Cisco 350-401: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) is a certification exam that focuses on the implementation of core enterprise network technologies. 350-401 exam aims to equip candidates with the knowledge and skills needed to design, configure, and troubleshoot enterprise networks. It covers various topics, including network design, automation, security, virtualization, and network infrastructure.

 

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